[pro] Meaning of "inline" when applied to a generic function?

[Hans Hübner]

Jean-Claude,

you can expect your compiler to ignore your "inline" declaration.  Or do
something else with it.  It is just a hint. [1]

A sufficiently smart compiler might use compile-time type inference to find
a method matching some set of argument types and then replace the function
invocation by the body of that method.  To me, it appears to be
questionable whether such a smart compiler would depend on inline
declarations.

I am just a user, though, and maybe one of the compiler writers on this
list want to add some of the fine points surrounding this :)

-Hans

[1] http://clhs.lisp.se/Body/d_inline.htm


2014-07-10 0:00 GMT+02:00 Jean-Claude Beaudoin <
jean.claude.beaudoin at gmail.com>:

> Hello CL pros,
>
> I am trying to figure out the meaning of the inline declaration when the
> so qualified function happens to be a generic function. As in:
>
> (declaim (inline foo))
> (defgeneric foo (a b))
>
> What can be expected of a compiler when it then faces a call to foo while
> the above is in effect?
>
> Is this an obvious no-op or did some find something useful to do in such a
> context?
>
> Thanks for your help,
>
> JCB
>
>
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