[pro] AMOP question: When and where is slot-value-using-class called?

[Kenneth Tilton]

You are puzzliing over undefined behavior, meaning what you have
discovered:is that implementations are free to go as crazy as, well,
canines in a dog park. This can be excitingly crazy, because the CL
standardizers were too exhausted to include the MOP in the standard. (They
made nice excuses about not wanting to inhibit implementers, but dollars to
donuts they just ran up the white flag in the face of the idea of
standardizing something as vast in itself as a complete HLL).

What were actually trying to build?

-kt



On Fri, Aug 1, 2014 at 10:00 PM, Pascal J. Bourguignon <
pjb at informatimago.com> wrote:

> Jean-Claude Beaudoin <jean.claude.beaudoin at gmail.com> writes:
>
> > So my question is: Which one is right?
>
> I'd note that this is a major problem of how OO libraries or
> frameworks are defined.  They very rarely specify or give any guarantee
> of when or whom will send a given message to a given object.
>
> This makes indeed difficult to subclass and override methods in a sturdy
> way.
>
> This is probably a reason why OO programmers nowadays tend to distance
> themselves from inheritance (using so called "flat" hierarchies), and
> like "final" methods a lot, which basically denies OO itself.
>
>
> Otherwise, for your question, you didn't mention any metaclass.  I'm not
> sure about it, but I would expect such methods from AMOP to be used
> consistently only when you define your own metaclasses.
>
>
> --
> __Pascal Bourguignon__                 http://www.informatimago.com/
> “The factory of the future will have only two employees, a man and a
> dog. The man will be there to feed the dog. The dog will be there to
> keep the man from touching the equipment.” -- Carl Bass CEO Autodesk
>
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-- 
Kenneth Tilton
Fort Lauderdale, FL
http://tiltontec.com
"In a class by itself." *-Macworld*
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